INTRODUCTION TO INDIAN GOVT ACCOUTNS AND AUDIT
KERALA ACCOUNT CODE VOL.1
CONSTITUTION OF INDIAN
Maximum : 100 marks
03.10.2023
1. Annual Report of State Public Service Commission is prepared by the Commission and
submitted to :
(A) President of India
(B) Union Public Service Commission
(C) Governor
(D) Legislature
2. Who is responsible for enforcing economy in the expenditure of public moneys?
(A) State Legislature
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Judiciary
(D) Executive Government
3. The net proceeds in relation to any tax or duty means the proceeds thereof :
(A) Reduced by the cost of collection
(B) Increased by the cost of collection
(C) Multiplied by the cost of realization
(D) Divided by the cost of collection
4. The travelling allowance of an officer paid from a Local Fund may, when travelling in the
execution of Government duty, be paid and charged to :
(A) Special Fund
(B) General Revenues
(C) Local Fund
(D) Contingency Fund
5. Washing Allowance paid to Class IV Government Servant shall be classified under :
(A) Contingencies
(B) Wages
(C) Salaries
(D) Other Charges
6. In respect of transactions originating in their accounts which are adjustable against the
balances of a State Government, the Accountant General, Central Revenues and the Deputy
Accountant General, Industry and Supply, and Food and Rehabilitation, effect the necessary
money settlement through the Central Accounts section of the Reserve Bank, the
transactions being passed by them through the head :
(A) Exchange Accounts
(B) Settlement Accounts
(C) Suspense Accounts
(D) Adjusting Account between Central and State Governments
7. Moneys advanced for miscellaneous purposes under special authority and recoverable in cash
and sums over paid on vouchers other than those for service payments shall be adjustable
under the head :
(A) 8443
(B) 8550
(C) 8782
(D) 8671
8. Recoveries from private persons or bodies (including local bodies and outside India) should, as a general rule be treated as :
(A) Revenue
(B) Reduction of expenditure
(C) Suspense
(D) Other Receipts
9. Any deposits remaining unclaimed beyond the prescribed period are duly credited as :
(A) Revenue Receipts
(B) Other Receipts
(C) Reserved Fund
(D) Sinking Fund
10. When the issue rate of an article of stock is fixed?
(A) Monthly
(B) Quarterly
(C) Half yearly
(D) At the beginning of the year
11. The total number of Ministers including the Chief Minister in the Council of Ministers in a
State shall not exceed –––––––––– percent of the total number of members of the Legislative
Assembly.
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 20
12. What is the procedure to be followed, if money due to Government has actually reached a Government servant and is then embezzled, stolen or lost before crediting to Consolidated
Fund or Public Account?
(A) The matter should invariably be reported to police for investigation
(B) It should be brought as a receipt into the Consolidated Fund or Public Account as
the case may be, and shown on the expenditure side by the record under a
separate head as a loss
(C) The embezzled/stolen amount should be booked under suspense pending
realization of the money
(D) Such type of transactions need not be brought to account until the loss is made
13. The accounts of Government are mainly based on the single entry system and double entry system is applied only in regard to the maintenance of a set of technical accounts, called the :
(A) Commercial Accounts
(B) Exchange Accounts
(C) Journal and Ledger
(D) Trading and Profit and Loss a/c
14. Can a committee appointed by Parliament undertake tours for on the spot study? If so, whose approval is necessary?
(A) No approval is necessary. They can undertake on the spot study
(B) Yes, they can undertake the tour with the approval of the Chairman of the
Committee
(C) Yes, the committee can undertake the tours, if majority of members are in favour
of the on the spot study
(D) Yes, on the spot study by the committee require the approval of the Speaker
15. The important duty of Audit in relation to borrowings is to see that :
(A) As to whether the borrowings are absolutely necessary considering the financial
position
(B) That the proceeds of loans are properly brought to account and that they are
expended only on objects for which the loans were originally raised or to which the
borrowed money may properly be applied in accordance with the sound principles
of public finance
(C) As to whether the borrowings are with the limits fixed by Legislature
(D) As to whether the borrowings made strictly in accordance with the Government of
India and RBI norms
16. The Contingency Fund of the State will be at the disposal of whom :
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Legislature
17. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed –––––––––– to be
Attorney General for India.
(A) A Judge of the Supreme Court of India
(B) A Senior Advocate of the Supreme Court of India
(C) Chief Vigilance Commissioner
(D) A Judge of the High Court
18. A Minister who for any period of –––––––––– is not a member of either House of Parliament, shall at the expiry of that period cease to be a Minister.
(A) 2 consecutive months
(B) 3 consecutive months
(C) 6 consecutive months
(D) 12 consecutive months
19. The President shall not be a member of :
(A) Loksabha
(B) Rajyasabha
(C) State Legislative Assembly
(D) Either House of Parliament or of a House of the State Legislature
20. Audit of Grant in aid and its principles do not apply to certain group of grant in aid. Which is that group?
(A) Grant in aid to Hospitals
(B) Statutory Grant in aid to State Government which are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India under specific provisions of Constitution
(C) Grant in aid to Libraries
(D) Grant in aid to Educational Institutions
21. What is the outstanding feature of democracy in administrative control?
(A) Programme Accountability
(B) Accountability of the Administration to the Legislature
(C) Fiscal Accountability
(D) Managerial Accountability
22. What is the minimum age of a person to be appointed as Governor?
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
23. An ordinance promulgated by Governor shall cease to operate at the expiration of
–––––––––– from the reassembly of the Legislative.
(A) Four weeks
(B) 30 days
(C) Six weeks
(D) 45 days
24. What is the official language of the Union?
(A) Hindi in Devanagari Script
(B) Hindi and English
(C) Hindi and Urdu
(D) English and Urdu
25. Which of the following functions is not carried out in Central Audit?
(A) Audit of sanctions and agreements
(B) Audit of monthly Accounts and Vouchers
(C) Performance Audit
(D) Scrutiny and Certification of the Finance Accounts and Appropriation Accounts
26. What is an Audit Board?
(A) A legal Entity
(B) Internal mechanism of the Indian Audit Department
(C) A statutory Body
(D) Audit wing of Public Enterprises
27. If the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant, the duties of that office shall be entrusted to whom?
(A) Performed by one of the other Judge of the Supreme Court as the President may
appoint for the purpose
(B) Performed by one of the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court
(C) Performed by the Chief Justice of any High Courts as the President may appoint
(D) Vacant till a New Chief Justice is appointed
28. What are the three ‘E’ s in Audit?
(A) Efficiency, Elegant and Earnestness
(B) Emminence, Earnestness and Efficiency
(C) Enterprise, Efficiency and Earnestness
(D) Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness
29. Who prepares the Combined Financial and Revenue Accounts of the Central and State
Governments in India?
(A) Accountant General of the State concerned
(B) Controller General of Accounts
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Accountant General, Central Revenues
30. How many persons can be nominated to the Council of States by the President of India?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
32. In which date our Constituent Assembly do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves the Constitution of India :
(A) 26th day of November 1949
(B) 26th day of December 1949
(C) 26th day of January 1950
(D) 15th August 1947
33. How many languages are there in the Eighth schedule?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 22
34. For impeachment of the President of India, such resolution has to be passed by a majority of –––––––––– of the total members of the House.
(A) Not less than 1/2
(B) Not less than 2/3
(C) Not less than 1/4
(D) Not less than 1/3
35. As a general rule, municipal rates and taxes on a non residential building utilized for
functional purposes, if paid by the relevant departments dealing with those function would
be adjusted in accounts as part of the sub head / minor head concerned relating to that
function under the detailed head :
(A) Rent Rates and Taxes
(B) Municipal Rates and Taxes
(C) Direct Taxes
(D) Municipal Rent
36. Which of the following Act comes under Tax Assessment?
(A) Legal
(B) Judicial
(C) Quasi-Judicial
(D) Statutory
37. In a head of account, the major head denotes :
(A) Scheme
(B) Function
(C) Sector
(D) Objects
38. What is the composition of members of the estimate committee of Parliament?
(A) 15 members of Loksabha and 7 members of Rajyasabha
(B) 15 members of Loksabha and 15 members of Rajyasabha
(C) 30 members entirely of Loksabha
(D) 20 members of Loksabha and 10 members of Rajyasabha
39. Provident Fund comes under :
(A) Consolidated fund
(B) Contingency Fund
(C) Reserve Fund
(D) Public Account
40. What is the nature of Central Audit?
(A) Regularity and propriety audit
(B) Propriety audit
(C) Concurrent Audit
(D) Annual Audit
41. To whom reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of
a State be submitted to?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Legislature
(D) Governor
42. Adulteration of food stuffs and other goods comes under :
(A) State List
(B) Federal List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Union List
43. The Advocate General shall hold the office during the pleasure of :
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Law Minister
(D) Chief Justice of High Court
44. The sole checks over initial measurements taken for works is exercised by :
(A) Subdivisional officer
(B) Subdivisional or Divisional or Superintending Engineer
(C) Divisional officer
(D) Superintending Engineer
45. In how many stages detailed appropriation audit are conducted?
(A) Four
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Various
46. Capital receipts in so far as they relate to expenditure previously debited to capital heads
accruing during the process of construction of a project is taken as :
(A) Capital Receipt alone
(B) Deferred Revenue
(C) Reduction of capital expenditure
(D) PW Deposit Account
47. How many principal processes are involved in every payment of money on Government
account?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) Various
48. Expenditure on a temporary asset :
(A) Should be debited to capital
(B) Can be met from other charges
(C) Can be treated as deferred revenue expenditure
(D) Cannot be considered as expenditure of a capital nature
49. In the performance of duties, the Attorney General of India shall have the right of audience in :
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Supreme Court and all High Courts in India
(C) All courts in India
(D) Courts as ordered by the Chief Justice of Supreme Court
50. The Finance Bill containing the annual taxation proposals is considered and passed by the Legislature only after the Demands for Grants have been voted and the total expenditure is known. Then it enters the :
(A) Appropriation Act
(B) Finance Act
(C) Appropriation Bill
(D) Money Bill
51. Hospitality expenses will include entertainment allowances of high dignitaries etc.
Expenditure on refreshment served in the inter departmental meetings, conferences will be
recorded under :
(A) Office expenses
(B) Other charges
(C) Inter Account Transfers
(D) Suspense Account
52. The distribution of the Legislative powers between the Union and the State is Governed by :
(A) Art. 243 of the constitution (B) Art. 244 of the constitution
(C) Art. 226 of the constitution (D) Art. 246 of the constitution
53. What are the end products in the field of Government accounting?
(A) Finance Accounts
(B) Appropriation Accounts
(C) Monthly accounts and the annual accounts
(D) Audit Reports
54. From where the Bin Card is posted?
(A) Goods received sheet and stores indent
(B) Price stores ledger
(C) Invoice
(D) Purchase order book
55. Rewards for destruction of wild animals and batta to witnesses are examples of ––––––––––
contingencies.
(A) Contract contingencies
(B) Special contingencies
(C) Counter signed contingencies
(D) Scale regulated contingencies
56. How Government of India can raise money by borrowing?
(A) On the strength of Cash Reserve
(B) On the security of the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) Capital fund
(D) On the security of contingent Asset of the Government
57. What is the fund constituted for redemption of loans raised by Government?
(A) Reserve Fund
(B) Investment Fund
(C) Consolidated Fund
(D) Sinking Fund
58. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of :
(A) 5 to 10 (B) 6 to 14
(C) 3 to 12 (D) 5 to 15
59. The recovery of pay and travelling allowance advances on transfer will irrespective of the
year of recovery be treated as :
(A) Reduction of Expenditure (B) Revenue Expenditure
(C) Minus Expenditure (D) Revenue Receipt
60. Which of the following is true?
(A) No money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund until the Appropriation
Bill is passed by the Legislative
(B) A demand for grants is a requisition placed before the Legislature for the grant to
meet the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) The estimate of expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India will have
to be submitted to the vote of the Legislature.
(D) When a particular demand for grant is passed by the Legislature it becomes
Appropriation Act
61. Charges on account of all telegrams relating to currency matters should be debited to :
(A) Reserve Bank (B) Post and Telegrams
(C) Other charges (D) Office expenses
62. Government companies and deemed Government companies setup under the companies Act where Government or Government owned and controlled institution own ––––––––––– percent or more of the paid up capital.
(A) 33
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 66
63. The areas covered in ––––––––––– audit will naturally vary from enterprise to enterprise
depending upon the nature of the enterprise, its objectives and operations.
(A) Annual (B) Internal
(C) Regularity (D) Comprehensive
64. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to ––––––––––– to any office under the state.
(A) Religion and Language (B) Employment or appointment
(C) Caste (D) Freedom of speech and expression
65. Which bank acts as a general clearing house for the adjustment of transaction between
different Governments?
(A) Central Accounts section RBI Nagpur
(B) RBI Mumbai
(C) RBI New Delhi
(D) State Bank of India
66. Taxes both on residential or non residential buildings owned or occupied by the Defence
Department shall be debited to the :
(A) Social and community services
(B) Economic services
(C) Defence services estimates
(D) General Budget Estimates
67. The Latin word ‘Audire’ means :
(A) To watch
(B) To hear
(C) To see
(D) To check and verify
68. An important element of Local Audit is the examination of adequacy and efficiency of
–––––––––– procedures.
(A) Standard operating
(B) Accounting Rules
(C) Statutory
(D) Internal Control
69. Gas and gas works comes under :
(A) Union list
(B) Concurrent List
(C) State List
(D) Petroleum Products
70. Some of the audit tenets followed centuries ago still apply, identify the same :
(A) Periodical stock verification and checking of stock with accounts
(B) Checking accounts and conducting local inspection
(C) Prompt payment of money into Treasury
(D) All of the above
71. When any land or building is transferred from one service department to another under the Kerala Government, the transfer should be :
(A) At the cost of the Receiving Department
(B) Made free of charge
(C) Not be made free of charge
(D) None of these
72. Payment of amount due by one department of Government to another shall ordinarily be
made by :
(A) Book Transfer
(B) Book Adjustments
(C) Bank Adjustments
(D) By way of cheques
73. Reappropriation from one Grant or Appropriation to another Grant or Appropriation are :
(A) Permissible
(B) Not permissible
(C) Permitted with specific condition
(D) None of these
74. The Audit Report on ––––––––––– presents to the Legislature, the revenue position of the Government of India under the tax and non tax sources.
(A) Revenue Receipts
(B) Capital Receipts
(C) Reserve Receipts and Expenditure
(D) Capital Receipts and Expenditure
75. What is ways and means refers to?
(A) Control over Expenditure
(B) Raising of additional revenue to Government
(C) Method of maintaining Governments daily cash balance at a level sufficient to
meet its day to day requirements
(D) Borrowings from external sources for Developmental purpose
76. What is the amount charged on the Consolidated Fund of State of Kerala every year for
annual payment to Travancore Devasom Fund?
(A) Thirty Lakhs and fifty thousand only
(B) Forty five lakhs and fifty thousand only
(C) Twenty five lakhs only
(D) Forty six lakhs and fifty thousand only
77. If a money bill passed by the House of the people and transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendation is not returned within the specified period. It shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period. What is that period?
(A) 30 days
(B) 21 days
(C) 15 days
(D) 14 days
78. How the Deputy Chairman of the Council of states is elected?
(A) Nominated by the Chairman, Council of States
(B) Elected by the Council members
(C) Nominated by the President
(D) Nominated by the Prime Minister
79. Why audit is not entitled to make independent enquires among the tax payers or the general public?
(A) Tax payers or general public are not co-operate with the enquiry
(B) Actually there would be no response, if it conducted
(C) Such action is held to be an encroachment on the functions of the Executive
(D) The work of Audit is voluminous in nature
80. Which department is permitted to make payment for all suppliers made and services
rendered by any department in connection with its Elections?
(A) Election
(B) Revenue
(C) Police
(D) Printing
81. An ––––––––––– purports to be an extract from the books of the officer who dispatches it and to show the amount he has passed to debit or credit of the other party to the account with any necessary explanations of the credits and with documents supporting debits.
(A) Cash Account
(B) Account Current
(C) Journal and Ledger
(D) Current Account
82. The Fire Forces Department may charge other departments at the rate of –––––––––––
per fire extinguisher for pressure testing.
(A) Rs.5
(B) Rs.4
(C) Rs.3
(D) Rs.2
83. Recoveries on account of commuted value of pensions effected from other Government should be treated as :
(A) Deductions from expenditure
(B) Revenue Receipt
(C) Minus expenditure
(D) Revenue expenditure
84. Certain proforma accounts relating to Irrigation, Navigation, Embankment and Drainage
Projects and Government residential buildings are required to be prepared by :
(A) Irrigation Officer
(B) Commercial Account Offices
(C) Navigation and embankment Department
(D) Civil Account Offices
85. A test check of the leave accounts including accounts of persons likely to retire or likely to complete ––––––––––– years of qualifying services are checked in detail.
(A) 26
(B) 28
(C) 29
(D) 30
86. The amounts written off by the Accountant General should be reported to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India annually by :
(A) 31st October
(B) 30th September
(C) 10th November
(D) 30th November
87. A member of the State Public Service Commission is appointed by :
(A) Its Chairman
(B) Governor of the State
(C) Chief Minister
(D) President of India
88. State Legislature has exclusive power to make laws in respect of the matters enumerated in :
(A) State List
(B) Union List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Central List
89. There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consists of :
(A) Council of states and House of the people
(B) President and Two Houses
(C) Prime Minister and Loksabha
(D) All MP’s of Loksabha and Rajyasabha
90. Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated
in the Concurrent List or State List. What is the nature of that power of Legislation?
(A) Statutory
(B) Discretionary
(C) Unitary
(D) Residuary
91. Stamp duty is levied by :
(A) State Government
(B) All Government
(C) Central Government
(D) Union Territories
92. In the case of Companies, the duty of an auditor is mainly in the interest of –––––––––––who are practically sleeping partners in the business.
(A) Share holders
(B) Promoters
(C) Directors
(D) Advisers
93. When a special officer is employed for acquisition of Law for any department, the expenditure
on pay allowances etc. of the special officer and his establishment and any expenditure on
contingencies is debitable to that department as :
(A) Cost of Land
(B) Contingencies
(C) Establishment Charges
(D) Other Charges
94. How many members are there in the Finance Commission appointed by the President?
(A) Chairman and 2 other members
(B) Chairman and 4 other members
(C) 7 Members
(D) Chairman and 8 other members
95. Which is not included in Union Direct Tax?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Wealth Tax
(C) Estate Duty
(D) Excise Duty
96. “Without audit, no accountability without accountability no control” who said this?
(A) Luca Pacioli
(B) Adam Smith
(C) E.L. Normanton
(D) J.R. Batliboi
97. In the State of Kerala, Proforma accounts are maintained outside the regular accounts for :
(A) Animal Husbandry Department
(B) State water Transport Department
(C) Dairy Development Department
(D) Handloom and Textile Department
98. Which among the following is not a fundamental duty?
(A) To promote International peace
(B) To safeguard public property
(C) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(D) To respect the National Flag and National Anthem
99. The review of balances under Debt Deposit and Remittance heads done at the close of the state accounts for a year is done by :
(A) Finance Department
(B) Director of Treasures
(C) Accountant General
(D) Revenue Bank of India
100. Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by :
(A) Committee consisting of Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India and Leader of
Opposition of the House of people
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) President of India
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